StalinForTime [comrade/them]

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Joined 2 years ago
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Cake day: March 9th, 2023

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  • If anything I’ve read too much theory comrade. I’m fully familiar with the arguments you’re citing, though personally I disagree. I disgree with the third-word The Leninist concept of labor aristocracy, though useful (which is not to say we can’t disagree with Lenin: he was a man of his time and what wrong on several points, though not the most important), I think often gets used in a really metaphysical and binary way. The Western proletariat certainly has advantageous conditions of life which are due to imperialism. That goes without saying. However no-where in what Lenin writes, not according to class interest, must the Western proletariat necessarily perceive I think people often make far too much of the idea that the Western working class consciously knows exactly what its supposedly reactionary interests are in that way. That’s not the way that class is lived or experienced. At times that might come through, such as when they vote for the far right in elections during a recession and high levels of immigration, but I think it’s a big assumption to suppose that their have a perfect understanding of their class interest when they do that. They certainly don’t seem to have a rational grasp on it when you speak to them, and so the only way of supporting the argument then seems to me to be to argue that there is some subconscious, structural or superstructural determination of their reactionary positions as in their class interest whether they are conscious of this or not; but this seems deeply unscientific and unverifiable to me - regardless, I think there a bunch of basic arguments, including from Marx himself, which make clear that it is the very nature of capitalism, understood in terms of its class system, which makes the class interests of the working class opposed to that of their bourgeoisie.

    The Western proletariat does have a class interest in ending capitalism. The large majority of them have not seen their living standards increase since the 70s, and I strongly believe that their conditions of life would be far healthier and more fulfilling were they to live in socialist and communist societies. Otherwise my fear is that we’re using a very reductive understanding of what class interest or quality of life means, making it excessively consumerist, thereby reproducing mystifying capitalist categories. My fear is that it devolves in a stereotype of vulgar materialism, as opposed to the far more open method of historical materialism which Marx uses (I’m not going to touch on dialectical materialism as that’s more controversial a concept).

    Practically, it seems to negate a really basic and essential for of solidarity, and would suggest that every communist in the West should give up, leave the West, or wish for the death of their loved ones. Even practically I don’t see it as a coherent strategy, given not only the previous comment but also because the idea that the working classes of the Global South are consciously very progressive politically is unfortunately often not the case, which is clear to anyone who has lived outside of the West. This is ofc a different point to whether or not there are geopolitical and global economic processes which lead certain geopolitical blocs or their working class populations to take certain views and positions which are progressive as historical material movements. For instance I can simultaneously say at Hamas and the Houthis, in their domestic contexts, are high reactionary in a bunch of ways, while also recognizing that their struggles against Israel and US imperialism are very progressive as far as geopolitics goes. I’d argue that Russia is more ambiguous. I still think that a fully successful communist revolution must be global and so will require a revolution in the imperial core, as Marx, Engels, Lenin, and most communists have thought.

    I also think there’s some ambiguity in what we mean by ‘strong’ and ‘develop past neoliberalism’ in what you’ve written. Neoliberalism was a political process of change in policy to reestablish conditions of profitability through programs of austerity. It’s not a different kind of mode of production. It’s still capitalism. This is historical and therefore can, and will, end. Other modes of production will emerge. So I guess you might be suggesting that the West will simply go fascist? I’m also add that I don’t think that revolutions are simply matters of the military strength of the power, but broader socio-economic conditions, though if the question is whether the conditions of the working class will need to become more critical before revolutionary conditions emerge, then I’d certainly agree. Nevertheless that doesn’t imply that the immediate target should be the immiseration of the Western working class.

    Obviously this is a theoretical disagreement, not a personal attack. Feel free to let me know what you think comrade.



  • Interesting example of how neoliberal strategies of extending the reach of financial instruments seems to inevitably come for the lower and middle classes’ (or broad working class’s) savings.

    I haven’t had the time to look at the proposals in any detail, but in essence, it seems that he’s just restating the classic economic logic that the source of investment is savings, and so if there is a mismatch between them, this will cause a negative output gap in growth, both due to demand and suppl-side factors. It is also obviously motivated by the concerns of mainstream economists that the lagging productivity (in particular of labor, because labour is the source of all value and how they form a common unit of value and productivity measurement, as Marx understood) is a serious issue and that AI is the way to deal with it. Also interesting the classic decrepit European realization that they are falling behind the US and China (and Russia, for that matter) on these fronts. Though it is strange how that ignores other key factors determining investment, like expected returns and interest rates (which are rising). Also, if private businesses are already unwilling to invest because they know that savings and income are too low, and people not willing enough to engage in borrowing sprees, to make their expected returns on investment profitable, then how would an investment fund financed with savings deal with this issue? He might argue that more efficient capital markets and new investment vehicles leverage savings might deal with that, but it is again not clear to me that the private sector is going to be that motivated. Most of the interest of private firms so far in AI has been either in superficial labor-saving areas like branding, website design, and potentially in more efficient systems of labor surveillance, monitoring, control and time-management, as opposed to any real tremendous gains in real labor productivity, though the future is ofc an unknown country. It also seems to ignore the naturally monopolistic tendencies of a sector like investment in advanced AI software and hardware, which would not suggest to me that the Europeans can easily compete with the US or China, who have a head-start in terms of concentration, advantages of scale and greater levels of government support.

    Funny also how none of the French liberals are asking which social group’s savings are going to bear the brunt of this. There is ofc no mention of the trillions in the bourgeoisie’s offshore bank accounts. Given the high rates of taxes (at least perceived) in France already it’s not clear how this would be popular with anybody.






  • Okay yeh I seen this.

    I think this is just referring to negotiations for a ceasefire or end to the conflict but not a full surrender of the Ukrainian government no?

    It’s also difficult for me to gauge how serious these reports are. They could be psy-op work by other side. Perhaps to convince people that the yanks are down to negotiate and then blame Russia when it inevitably does not materialize. I could be wrong, but it seems to me like neither side has any real incentive to negotiate for the time being. The US and Ukraine may be hoping that Russia also bleeds themself enough from attrition on the front lines that they are eventually content with just the Donbass and Crimea. I’d be very interested to see whether or under what conditions Russia would actually come to the table. What incentive do they have now? If the US gets to the point where the situation for Ukraine is so dire that they are willing to get negotiations going and push Ukraine to accept giving these territories, then why would Russia in that situation not simply also have no incentive to negotiate? Why not push up to Kiev? I guess the main obstacle there and possible source of WW3 style crisis would be if there is a nuclear standoff as Russia pushes all the way through Ukraine and the US starts setting nuclear-use related red lines.








  • Yeah mans was a piece of garbage. The older he got the more reactionary his politics and the more idealistic and maturbatory he became. If what people are interested is in his earlier, more structuralist work, then frankly they can find that elsewhere. If they are interested in his later work on sexuality, well frankly there are far better works on the history of sexuality. And that’s not even touching his politics (that of a self-indulgent petit pourgeois pseudo-radical who clearly deeply distrusted the working class) or his personal life. There’s been alot of debate of it, but frankly I think it’s clear that Foucault had clear preferences over socialist alternatives for the form of Neoliberal culture and ideology that was emerging in the late 70s and 80s, given that that he saw it as genuinely opening up new fields of possible identities and practices. Whether that is true is, in a sense, secondary, as it reveals a lot about his thoroughly un-Marxist understanding of the relationship between politics and identity, and ignores the question and what would be sacrificed in that process. Frankly he was an individualist to the bone.

    I was recently reading Maurice Godelier (an actual great French Marxist anthropologist), and in a foreword he wrote in the late 70s he speaks with utter and justified contempt of the useless petit bourgeois masturbation of Foucault, Derrida, Deleuze and Guatari, speaking about it as basically already outdated. The thing is that he was correct. These thinkers were revitalized due to their being taken up in during the Neoliberal period beginning at the end of the 70s, notably in the US under the guise of ‘French Theory’, and was then imported back into France. In other words the favoring of these theories over Marxism in the disproportionately influential American bourgeois academy contributed to reestablishing the legitimacy of these theories in their country of origin.

    People really need to ask themselves why the bourgeois academy, and reactionary bourgeois academics, and so infatuated with these thinkers and why they are willing to have entire courses on them whereas there is nothing similar when it comes to Marxism, despite the fact that the latter is one of if not the most influential political tradition of the 20th century, and that Marx is one of if not the most influential philosopher of the last several hundred years. The reason is that they provide the perfect web of intellectual masturbation in which people can think that they are doing or thinking something politically and socially radical, when frankly there is not actual much original contribution of value in their work. All the worthwhile comments of Foucault on the nature of science can be found in other, superior thinkers of the Historical Epistemology School or among Marxists of the time and before.

    Honestly it’s especially infuriating given how much pernicious influence this has had on the modern social sciences and humanities. As an example, I was recently having a conversation with a bourgeois, liberal historian, and they were essentially saying that my application of Marxist concepts to the past was ‘anachronistic’ because I was applying a ‘metanarrative’ to explanation of the past, by trying to apply a general model to explain historical phenomenon, and that capitalism was “not a concept at the time”. Like motherfucker. Adam Smith never uses the word capitalism. So did it not exist as a social phenomenon at the time? Did neutrons not exist before we theorized them? Honestly the intellectual level of the social sciences and humanities in the West has declined to such a degree that literal leading fucking professors are not able to think in concepts but just in words based on the most braindead social and linguistic relativism applied to theoretical entities or the references of the terms of our theories that we’d normally only hope to expect from an edgy teenager reading Nietzsche. For him, and many others, history has increasingly become the actitivity of collecting more and more particular, minute details without daring to use them in a broader structure for explanation. He was literally basically defining history as anti-scientific, and it’s not surprising given that frankly I’m not sure how anyone can seriously study history and not come out with a generally Marxist POV, and given he is a bourgeois liberal who therefore has to avoid Marxism at all cost, so therefore obviously the history he does will be theoretically weak af. Another point here is that he is a liberal who is not explicitly postmodern or poststructural in orientation, but is still so influenced by and so passive towards that general culture in the social sciences and humanities that he nevertheless shares their anti-scientific conception of social science.

    And YES, Foucault did explicitly justify pedophilia. Whether he ever committed those acts is something that is uncertain, but fuck him regardless.

    I recommend reading the following:

    https://monthlyreview.org/2023/06/01/the-myth-of-1968-thought-and-the-french-intelligentsia-historical-commodity-fetishism-and-ideological-rollback/

    https://mronline.org/2021/12/31/the-fbi-file-on-foucault/

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_petitions_against_age_of_consent_laws





  • Yeah I think we often forget just how brutal and ruthless you had to have been during Feudalism, especially earlier feudalism or the period prior to Feudalism proper i.e. during the early formation of the socio-economic and political structures that we would then call Feudalism, in order to succeed or survive politically. The violent competition between the aristocracy was very real. It’s funny in the case of Henry VII and Richard III because obviously while the view of the latter as a deformed sociopathic tyrant and pervert has been influenced up to the current day by Tudor propaganda (of which the most famous example is the Shakespeare play Richard III), it’s nevertheless hilarious that there has been moves to try and legitimize Richard III by claiming that everything bad claimed about him are Tudor lies, whereas you can literally just read contemporary or fairly accurate accounts of his reign to realize that mans was also a ruthless murdering bastard. So was Henry VII obviously. They all were frankly. If you weren’t then you ended up like Henry VI.

    I was reading Southern’s Making of the Middle-Ages recently, and although it’s definitely dated in a bunch of respects, it does emphasize how during the period of feudalism’s formation in Northern France, there was real, extremely brutal and violent struggle, showing great political acumen and tact, by the brutal aristocratic warlords who were rising during the 11th century to form the Knightly class. It leaves little to doubt as to whether these people knew what they were doing. He also emphasizes their fascinating relationship with the university men, who during the High Medieval Renaissance were becoming more and learned, numerous, and essential to the construction and administration of feudalism’s political and bureaucratic structures, and how they also played the role of providing moral justification and psychological care to the many deeply guilt-ridden, violent men of the nobility and warrior class.


  • To a degree yes but the extent to which the Wars of the Roses leading to the Tudor dynasty were bloody is exaggerated from what I understand. The only battle which was very serious in terms of casualties was Towton (which might have actually been the most bloody battle on English soil we know of), but apart from that is was an on-and-off affair. The causality rate and absolute numbers were high in that battle, but not more so than other vicious battles which were more frequent on the European continent. It’s not even certain that the numbers of the nobility were decimated that much or more than in other European wars of the time.

    What it did do however was undermine the more decentralized power of late bastard feudalism in which there was concentration of power in the hands of certain very powerful houses and barons. This centralization of power had already been going on under Richard III, and was taken up by Henry Tudor. The Tudor did not kill all of their opponents, let alone dissolve the feudal aristocracy, as though Henry Tudor was of the House of Lancaster, he married into the House of York to create the Tudor dynasty in order to unite the houses descended from the Plantagenets, and it remained a society ruled by a land-owning military aristocracy, though with important developments in the English state.