It is obviously the presence of good. As the absence of bad would make it not bad instead of good. This is just framing bad grammar as a philosophical question. When we use words with intent and stick to largely agreed upon meanings, we can rid ourselves of the trivial ponderances like this one that plague philosophy subs.

Edit:

To expand on that a bit more we could ask:

What makes something red? Is it the presence of red or absence of blue?

When asked in this way, it is obvious that the presence of red is necessary unless we redefine red as anything absent of blue.

I think the most likely scenario is that Israel will assassinate him and blame it on Iran, and this is them creating the pretext for it.