• Earthwormjim91@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    Yes it 100% does. The dictatorship of the proletariat is the fundamental cornerstone of transitioning from a capitalist society to a communist society in Marxist philosophy.

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dictatorship_of_the_proletariat

    It requires a revolution by the proletariat overthrowing the government and implementing a single party state rule with absolute power to forcibly seize the means of production, and firmly wield their monopoly on force to prevent counterrevolution.

    There’s no arguing against that when talking about Marxist communism. It’s fundamentally integral to it.

    • Prunebutt@feddit.de
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      1 year ago

      You yourself explained why in reality it doesn’t work that way. Bakunin was proven right by history. The state is a tool for pacifying class tensions with violence. That is Marx’s own definition.

      That a single party rule is necessary is fan fiction by Lenin. Even Marx himself disliked the vanguardist tendencies or the people calling themselves “Marxist”.

      Communism doesn’t need Marx. A classless, moneyless society according to the paradime “To each according to their needs, from each according to their ability” (i.e.: communism) existed way before Marx, for example in indigenous American tribes. Socialism is described as the workers owning the means of production. If the state owns the MOP, the workers’ property relations mean squat.

      Marx additionally was proven wrong in his claim that the peasantry can’t be a revolutionary class with the Catalonian revolution. Who introduced proper socialism without a state-aparatus.

      • Earthwormjim91@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        That a single party rule is necessary is fan fiction by Lenin.

        It’s straight from Marx himself, not Lenin.

        Socialism is described as the workers owning the means of production. If the state owns the MOP, the workers’ property relations mean squat.

        And who is going to enforce the worker ownership of the means of production without a State having the final say?

        Marx additionally was proven wrong in his claim that the peasantry can’t be a revolutionary class with the Catalonian revolution. Who introduced proper socialism without a state-aparatus.

        Revolutionary Catalonia lasted less than 10 months as a socialist state before falling. Idk if you can say they successfully implemented proper socialism when they couldn’t even make it through one year.

        • Prunebutt@feddit.de
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          1 year ago

          It’s straight from Marx himself, not Lenin.

          Sure it is. /s

          And who is going to enforce the worker ownership of the means of production without a State having the final say?

          The workers? Why do you think that majority rule over something needs to be enforced?

          Revolutionary Catalonia lasted less than 10 months as a socialist state before falling. Idk if you can say they successfully implemented proper socialism when they couldn’t even make it through one year.

          Do you know, why it collapsed? Certainly not because they failed to implement socialism and rather went back to * checks notes * a fascist corporate regime.