• SkyNTP@lemmy.ml
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    3
    arrow-down
    10
    ·
    2 days ago

    Let me play devil’s advocate: who gets to say what is a human rights violation? And I am not talking about what happens on the ground, so put your pitchforks away. I’m talking about how it is defined in international law–what happens when a country like Russia and puppets defines gay rights as a human rights violation.

    Point is, there is absolutely no way to get states to agree on any of this and if it was binding, then it is a power that can and will be abused for geopolitical points.

    I think principles of law are only enforceable at a state level. Almost by definition of sovereignty. Above the state level, there can only be treaties and geopolitics.

    • koper@feddit.nl
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      6
      ·
      2 days ago

      You seem to misunderstand the concept of international law.

      I’m talking about how it is defined in international law

      There are various widely adopted treaties that give specific definitions for crimes against humanity. In this case, the 1949 Geneva Conventions.

      Point is, there is absolutely no way to get states to agree on any of this

      And yet 196 states, including France and Israel, have ratified these conventions (fully or in part). 125 states, including France but not Israel, have ratified the Rome statute and thus accept the ICC jurisdiction. States agree to these treaties because of diplomacy: you get taken less seriously if you don’t ratify these.

      Of course, this system of international law breaks down when states flagrantly break it without repercussions, like Israel and France in this case.